Haryana ADA Test Series - Mock Test

Lawlogy

18 Mar, 2023

Questions

Question 1: Permission to investigate into a non-cognizable offence can be granted by a :

Option A: Magistrate in any part of India

Option B: Magistrate in any part of State

Option C: Magistrate having jurisdiction to try the case

Option D: Session Judge

Question 2: Who can make rules or give special orders from time to time consistent with Cr.P.C. as to the distribution of business among the subordinate Judicial Magistrate :

Option A: Executive Magistrate

Option B: District Magistrate

Option C: Additional District and Sessions Judge

Option D: Chief Judicial Magistrate

Question 3: Under Section 41C of Cr.P.C. state government shall establish control room

Option A: Only at district level

Option B: Only at state level

Option C: Only at commissioner level

Option D: At state and district level

Question 4: Under Section 83(1) of the Cr.P.C., the court may order :

Option A: proclamation for person absconding before attaching property

Option B: attachment of property of person absconding after proclamation

Option C: proclamation and attachment simultaneously

Option D: proclamation and attachment by separate order

Question 5: In which of the following cases, it was held that provisions of Chapter VIII of Cr.P.C. being in public interest are not violative of Article 19 of the Constitution of India.

Option A: Ram Charan vs. State

Option B: Shiv Narain vs. Ban Mali

Option C: Madhu Limaye vs. SDM Monghyr

Option D: Ram Prasad vs. Emperor

Question 6: If a person against whom an order under Section 133 of Cr.P.C. is made, appears and show cause against the order, the Magistrate shall :

Option A: Take evidence in the matter as in a summons case

Option B: Take evidence in the matter as a warrant case

Option C: Take evidence in the matter as an extraordinary case

Option D: Take no evidence

Question 7: FIR is not a substantive evidence, it can be used during trial for the following :

Option A: Only to corroborate the evidence of the informant

Option B: Only to contradict the evidence of the informant

Option C: For both (a) and (b)

Option D: For neither (a) nor (b)

Question 8: A statement recorded under which section of Cr.P.C. need not be signed by the maker?

Option A: 164

Option B: 313

Option C: 161

Option D: None of the above

Question 9: During investigation of an offence of committing rape, medical examination of the alleged victim may be done :

Option A: only on the order of a magistrate

Option B: necessarily on the request of concerned investigation officer, if he deems it fit

Option C: after the investigation officer obtains permission of his Superintendent of Police

Option D: with the consent of such woman victim or of any person competent to give such consent on her behalf

Question 10: An offence of bigamy can be tried

Option A: only where the offence was committed

Option B: only where the offender resided last with his first wife

Option C: either at (a) or at (b)

Option D: at the court's jurisdiction where the permanent residence of the aggrieved woman, after the offence, is situated

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Question 11: A Magistrate may take cognizance of an offence :

Option A: on police report

Option B: on private complaint

Option C: suo moto

Option D: all of the above

Question 12: Personal attendance of an accused can be dispensed with under the provisions of Section ______ of the Cr.P.C.

Option A: 202

Option B: 203

Option C: 204

Option D: 205

Question 13: Under Section 219 of the Cr.P.C., 'offence of same kind' means

Option A: when they are punishable with the same amount of punishment

Option B: when they are punishable under same section

Option C: when they are punishable with the same amount of punishment under the same section of the Indian Penal Code or of any special or local law

Option D: None of the above

Question 14: Which of the following courts can try summarily offences mentioned in Section 260 of Cr.P.C.?

Option A: Any Chief Judicial Magistrate

Option B: Any Metropolitan Magistrate

Option C: Any Magistrate of the First Class specially empowered by the High Court in this behalf

Option D: All the above

Question 15: Which provision requires that evidence must be taken in the presence of the accused?

Option A: Section 302 of IPC

Option B: Section 154 of the Evidence Act

Option C: Section 277 of Cr.P.C.

Option D: Section 273 of Cr.P.C.

Question 16: When an accused person is pardoned under Section 306 of the Cr.P.C., 1973, he :

Option A: becomes a witness for the prosecution.

Option B: becomes an ordinary witness.

Option C: should be examined as a witness first in the trial court.

Option D: becomes a witness for the defence.

Question 17: An offence of voluntarily causing grievous hurt by dangerous weapons or means as provided under Section 326 of the Indian Penal Code is :

Option A: Compoundable

Option B: Non-Compoundable

Option C: Compoundable with the permission of the Court

Option D: None of the above

Question 18: Under which section of the Cr.P.C., a Court can order any amount to be paid by accused as compensation?

Option A: 357(1)

Option B: 357(2)

Option C: 357(3)

Option D: 357(4)

Question 19: An appeal under Section 374 of the Cr.P.C., 1973 is filed by :

Option A: State Government

Option B: Convicted person

Option C: Public prosecutor

Option D: District Magistrate

Question 20: An irregularity by the Magistrate in which one of the following cases will not vitiate proceedings?

Option A: Making an order for maintenance

Option B: Demanding security for good behaviour

Option C: Tendering pardon to accomplice

Option D: Trying an offence summarily

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Question 21: Essential requirements of a Muslim marriage are :

Option A: Qabul only

Option B: Ijab only

Option C: Both Qabul and Ijab

Option D: None of the above

Question 22: What type of Muslim marriage is which is performed temporarily for enjoyment?

Option A: Batil

Option B: Sahih

Option C: Muta

Option D: Fasid

Question 23: When in a Muslim marriage 'Mehr' is unspecified, the wife is entitled to get

Option A: Mehr-i-Muajjal

Option B: Mehr-i-Muwajjal

Option C: Mehr-i-Misl

Option D: All of the above

Question 24: Object of serving Iddat period is :

Option A: To ascertain whether the woman is pregnant or not.

Option B: To ascertain the paternity of the child.

Option C: Both (a) and (b)

Option D: None of the above

Question 25: Under the Muslim Law, 'Khula' and 'Mubarat' are :

Option A: the forms of marriage

Option B: the forms of dissolution of marriage by agreement

Option C: the forms of repudiation of gift on attaining majority

Option D: the forms of demanding pre-emption

Question 26: Consideration :

Option A: must have some value in the eyes of law

Option B: must be real

Option C: must not be illusory

Option D: all are correct

Question 27: Communication of acceptance is complete as against the acceptor only :

Option A: when it is put in the course of transmission

Option B: when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer

Option C: when it is communicated to the acceptor that the acceptance has reached the proposer

Option D: all of the above

Question 28: The age of majority for contract is

Option A: 18 years

Option B: 21 years

Option C: 16 years

Option D: 18 years for girls and 21 years for boys

Question 29: A patient in a lunatic asylum who is at intervals of sound mind :

Option A: May not contract

Option B: May contract during intervals

Option C: May contract on Medical certificate

Option D: May contract after complete sound mind

Question 30: A master asks his servant to sell his bike to him at a price less than the market price. This contract can be avoided by the servant on the ground of :

Option A: coercion

Option B: fraud

Option C: mistake

Option D: undue influence

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Question 31: A agrees to pay B, a teacher, Rs. 15,000 if B passed his son in the examination. B does so but A refuses to pay the money. In this case, which one of the following gives the correct legal position of the agreement?

Option A: The agreement is valid and enforceable

Option B: The agreement is void being opposed to public policy

Option C: The agreement is void because the object is unlawful and forbidden by law

Option D: The agreement is voidable at the option of B

Question 32: A contract of life insurance is a

Option A: Contingent contract

Option B: Wagering contract

Option C: Contract of indemnity

Option D: Contract of guarantee

Question 33: Which of the following cases is related to 'doctrine of frustration'?

Option A: Felt House vs. Bindly

Option B: Hardley vs. Bdxandale

Option C: Krell vs. Henry

Option D: Mohri Bibi vs. Dharmadas Ghose

Question 34: Quasi contractual obligations are based on the theory propounded by whom?

Option A: Lord Wright

Option B: Lord Summer

Option C: Anson

Option D: Lord Mansfield

Question 35: "Contract of Indemnity" is defined in which section of the Indian Contract Act?

Option A: Section 124

Option B: Section 125

Option C: Section 126

Option D: Section 127

Question 36: The effect of ratification under the law of agency is :

Option A: Prospective

Option B: Retrospective

Option C: Prospective or retrospective depending on the facts and circumstances of the case

Option D: Prospective or retrospective depending on the agreement between the parties

Question 37: The true test of partnership is based on

Option A: Sharing of profits only

Option B: Sharing of losses only

Option C: Mutual agency

Option D: Intention of the parties

Question 38: The term 'goodwill' is a thing easy to describe but very difficult to define, is stated by

Option A: Lord Herschell

Option B: Lord Heldaene

Option C: Lord Mac Naughten

Option D: Lord Eldon

Question 39: Which of the following sections of the Indian Partnership Act bestows every partner with the authority of an agent?

Option A: Section 17

Option B: Section 18

Option C: Section 19

Option D: Section 20

Question 40: Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

Option A: Definition of Partnership - Section 4

Option B: Partnership at Will - Section 7

Option C: Expulsion of Partner - Section 33

Option D: Authority of Partner in Emergency - Section 23

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Question 41: A partnership firm may be dissolved

Option A: with the consent of all partners.

Option B: in accordance with a contract between the partners.

Option C: both (a) and (b)

Option D: none of the above

Question 42: Registration of Firm does not create partnership but is only the evidence of partnership :

Option A: TRUE

Option B: Partly true

Option C: FALSE

Option D: Partly false

Question 43: Under which section of the Indian Evidence Act, the conduct of the accused is relevant?

Option A: Section 12

Option B: Section 8

Option C: Section 10

Option D: Section 11

Question 44: The question is, whether 'A' committed a crime at Calcutta on a certain day. The fact that, on that day, 'A' was at Indore is relevant -

Option A: As a motive for fact in issue

Option B: As introductory to fact in issue

Option C: As preparation of relevant fact

Option D: As it makes the existence of fact in issue highly improbable

Question 45: Which one cannot make admission?

Option A: Agent of parties

Option B: Person from whom parties have derived interest

Option C: Admission by co-defendant

Option D: Those persons who have been made umpires by parties to the case

Question 46: In which section of Evidence Act, 1872, confession made to the police is not admissible?

Option A: Section 25

Option B: Section 24

Option C: Section 32

Option D: Section 27

Question 47: Which one of the following is not the exception to the rule of the hearsay under the law of evidence?

Option A: Expert's opinion

Option B: Dying declaration

Option C: Confession

Option D: Res Gestae

Question 48: Which sub-section of Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act makes the fact of relations between the parties who are not alive, relevant :

Option A: Sub-section (1)

Option B: Sub-section (3)

Option C: Sub-section (5)

Option D: Sub-section (6)

Question 49: Opinion of an expert under Section 45 of Evidence Act

Option A: is a conclusive proof

Option B: is not a conclusive proof

Option C: is supportive and corroborative in nature

Option D: is not admissible

Question 50: The primary evidence in respect of a document, which is prepared in many original copies, will be :

Option A: First original copy

Option B: All original copies

Option C: All copies are secondary evidence

Option D: None of the above

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Question 51: The provision relating to presumption as to telegraphic message is embodied in the Evidence Act vide Section :

Option A: 83

Option B: 85

Option C: 87

Option D: 88

Question 52: The good faith of a sale by a client to an attorney is in question in a suit brought by the client :

Option A: The burden of proving the good faith of the transaction is on the attorney.

Option B: The burden of proving the good faith of the transaction is on the client.

Option C: Both (a) and (b)

Option D: None of the above

Question 53: Under the CPC, which of the following is not a decree?

Option A: Dismissal of suit in default

Option B: Rejection of a plaint

Option C: Dismissal of suit in default and rejection of a plaint

Option D: None of the above

Question 54: Court of small cause is subordinate to

Option A: only Revenue Court

Option B: only High Court

Option C: only District Court

Option D: both High Court and District Court

Question 55: The principle of res judicata does not apply in case of writ of :

Option A: Habeas Corpus

Option B: Mandamus

Option C: Quo Warranto

Option D: Prohibition

Question 56: In execution of a decree for the maintenance, salary of a person can be attached to the extent of

Option A: one-fourth

Option B: one-third

Option C: two-third

Option D: one-half

Question 57: Who may apply for reference under Section 113 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

Option A: A party to suit

Option B: Court

Option C: Both (a) and (b)

Option D: None of the above

Question 58: Dasti summons for service on the defendant can be given to the plaintiff under :

Option A: Order V Rule 9A of CPC

Option B: Order V Rule 9 of CPC

Option C: Order V Rule 7 of CPC

Option D: Order VI Rule 6 of CPC

Question 59: "It is a statement of claim, a document by presentation of which the suit is instituted." It is called as

Option A: Affidavit

Option B: Written-statement

Option C: Counter-claim

Option D: Plaint

Question 60: Which of the following provision is related with set-off under Code of Civil Procedure?

Option A: Order VIII Rule 5

Option B: Order VIII Rule 6

Option C: Order VII Rule 5

Option D: Order VII Rule 6

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Question 61: Interrogatories shall be answered under Code of Civil Procedure by way of affidavit to be filed within _____ days or within such other time as the Court may allow.

Option A: 30

Option B: 20

Option C: 10

Option D: 45

Question 62: Abatement means

Option A: suspension or termination of proceedings in an action for want of proper parties

Option B: the process of bringing on record legal representatives of the deceased party

Option C: both (a) and (b)

Option D: none of the above

Question 63: In which of the following countries, the Supreme Court Judges are appointed for life tenure, terminating upon death, resignation, or conviction?

Option A: Canada

Option B: Australia

Option C: USA

Option D: Germany

Question 64: Fundamental rights were borrowed from the

Option A: British Constitution

Option B: US Constitution

Option C: Australian Constitution

Option D: Canadian Constitution

Question 65: In IPC the word 'Woman' denotes to :

Option A: a female above the age of fifteen years

Option B: a female above the age of eighteen years

Option C: a female above the age of twenty one years

Option D: a female of any age including newly born female child

Question 66: 'A' intentionally causes 'Z's death partly by illegally omitting to give 'Z' food and partly by beating 'Z'. 'A' has committed the offence of

Option A: Culpable homicide not amounting to murder

Option B: Attempt to commit murder

Option C: Murder

Option D: Grievous hurt

Question 67: 'A' is cutting the wood with an axe at a place where children are playing. The axe flies off and kills a nearby child. 'A' is liable for

Option A: no offence

Option B: murder

Option C: culpable homicide

Option D: causing death by negligence

Question 68: Which of the following case is known as the Lamington Road Shooting Conspiracy Case?

Option A: R vs. Blake and Tye

Option B: In Re N. Ramaratnam

Option C: Emperor vs. Vaishampayam

Option D: Mirza Akbar vs. King Emperor

Question 69: Use of violence by a member of an assembly of five or more persons in furtherance of common object will constitute :

Option A: affray

Option B: assault

Option C: rioting

Option D: unlawful assembly

Question 70: 'A' harbours 'B' whom he known that he has committed a capital offence with the intention of screening him from legal punishment. 'A' will be punished :

Option A: with minimum 2 years imprisonment

Option B: with rigorous imprisonment for a maximum of 5 years

Option C: with imprisonment of either description for a maximum period of 7 years

Option D: with fine

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Question 71: Not being armed with any deadly weapon and not expressing any intention to kill. 'A' tied 'B' to an electric pole with ropes and assaulted him as a result of which 'B' died. 'A' committed offence punishable under Section :

Option A: 302

Option B: 304

Option C: 304A

Option D: 326

Question 72: How many kinds of hurts are included under grievous hurt under Section 320 of the Indian Penal Code?

Option A: 5

Option B: 6

Option C: 7

Option D: 8

Question 73: The act of use of force by one person to another, has been described in :

Option A: Section 349 of IPC

Option B: Section 350 of IPC

Option C: Section 351 of IPC

Option D: Section 362 of IPC

Question 74: Under which section of IPC, kidnapping for ransom is provided?

Option A: Section 364

Option B: Section 362

Option C: Section 363A

Option D: Section 364A

Question 75: In order to constitute theft, what is not an ingredient in IPC?

Option A: Dishonest intention

Option B: Moving of the property

Option C: Common intention

Option D: Movable property

Question 76: Which one of the following is an inchoate offence?

Option A: Public nuisance

Option B: Criminal attempt

Option C: Unlawful assembly

Option D: Riot

Question 77: Kanyadaan is an important ceremony in Hindu marriages. It is mandatory for a marriage to be held valid.

Option A: TRUE

Option B: FALSE

Option C: True, only if kanyadaan is done by biological father

Option D: True, only if kanyadaan is done by any blood relative

Question 78: Where the wife (a homemaker) does not comply with the decree for restitution of conjugal rights under Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 and instead files for divorce and maintenance, she would

Option A: not be entitled to claim maintenance.

Option B: be entitled to claim maintenance.

Option C: be entitled to claim only starvation allowance.

Option D: be entitled to claim maintenance only from the date she complies with the decree for restitution of conjugal rights.

Question 79: A groom of 25 years marries a bride of 15 years of age under Hindu Law, the marriage is

Option A: illegal

Option B: void

Option C: voidable

Option D: valid but punishable

Question 80: If a girl becomes pregnant by some person before marriage, and subsequently marries some third person. What is the position under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?

Option A: Marriage is void

Option B: Marriage is valid

Option C: Marriage is voidable at the option of the groom

Option D: None of the above

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Question 81: Section 3(c) of the Hindu Succession Act defines

Option A: Agnate

Option B: Cognate

Option C: Full blood

Option D: Half blood

Question 82: ‘Future goods' has been defined, in the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, under

Option A: Section 2(5)

Option B: Section 2(6)

Option C: Section 2(7)

Option D: Section 2(8)

Question 83: The unpaid seller may exercise his right of stoppage of transit

Option A: By taking actual possession of the goods

Option B: By giving notice of his claim to the carrier or other bailee in whose possession the goods are

Option C: By (a) and (b) both

Option D: By none of the above

Question 84: Which committee has been constituted by the Haryana Government to resolve the problem of those agitating for reservation and other issues of the state?

Option A: D.S. Dhesi Committee

Option B: P.K. Lahoti Committee

Option C: H.S. Juneja Committee

Option D: M.P. Kaur Committee

Question 85: Who among the following was the first Indian to get selected in Indian Civil Services?

Option A: Ras Bihari Bose

Option B: Satyendra Nath Tagore

Option C: Devendranath Tagore

Option D: Surendranath Banerjee

Question 86: Who among the following nominates the chairman of Public Accounts Committee of India?

Option A: Prime Minister

Option B: President

Option C: Speaker of Lok Sabha

Option D: Chairman of Rajya Sabha

Question 87: Which of the following states of India does not share a boundary with Myanmar?

Option A: Arunachal Pradesh

Option B: Manipur

Option C: Nagaland

Option D: Assam

Question 88: Which port is known as Queen of Arabian Sea?

Option A: Vizag port

Option B: Paradip port

Option C: Kochi port

Option D: Mumbai port

Question 89: The Phad painting is a religious scroll painting practiced in which state of India?

Option A: Rajasthan

Option B: Himachal Pradesh

Option C: Odisha

Option D: Andhra Pradesh

Question 90: Who is known as the father of Indian green revolution?

Option A: Verghese Kurien

Option B: M.S. Swaminathan

Option C: M.N. Roy

Option D: P.C. Mahalonibis

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Question 91: Who invented the Mariner's Compass?

Option A: Marco Polo

Option B: John Gutenberg

Option C: Galileo

Option D: Newton

Question 92: Which of the following mountain ranges form a dividing line between the Ganges Plain and the Deccan Plateau?

Option A: Aravalli

Option B: Vindhya and Satpura

Option C: Eastern Ghats

Option D: Shivalik

Question 93: In which among the following books has Darwin given the evolution of Humans?

Option A: The Origin of Man

Option B: The Origin of Species

Option C: The Origin of Sapiens

Option D: The Neanderthal Man

Question 94: What is the term of Prime Minister as mentioned in the Constitution?

Option A: 5 Years

Option B: 6 Years

Option C: No fixed term

Option D: None of the above

Question 95: Who decided the salary and allowance of the Prime Minister?

Option A: Parliament

Option B: Lok Sabha

Option C: Rajya Sabha

Option D: Council of Ministers

Question 96: In which region of Haryana are the Shivalik mountain ranges located?

Option A: in the southwest

Option B: in the southeast

Option C: in the northeast

Option D: none of the above

Question 97: Which of the following words has the same meaning as "Fostering"?

Option A: Safeguarding

Option B: Neglecting

Option C: Ignoring

Option D: Nurturing

Question 98: Which of the following words has the meaning opposite to that of "Terrible"?

Option A: Soothing

Option B: Frightening

Option C: Scaring

Option D: Horrible

Question 99: Rajeev failed in the examination because none of his answers were _______ to the questions asked.

Option A: allusive

Option B: revealing

Option C: pertinent

Option D: referential

Question 100: Catching the earlier train will give us the _____ to do some shopping.

Option A: chance

Option B: luck

Option C: possibility

Option D: occasion

Answers

Question No.	Answer	Question No.	Answer
1	C	51	D
2	D	52	A
3	D	53	A
4	B	54	D
5	C	55	A
6	A	56	C
7	C	57	B
8	C	58	A
9	D	59	D
10	D	60	B
11	D	61	C
12	D	62	A
13	C	63	C
14	D	64	B
15	D	65	D
16	A	66	C
17	B	67	D
18	C	68	C
19	B	69	C
20	C	70	B
21	C	71	B
22	C	72	D
23	C	73	A
24	C	74	D
25	B	75	C
26	D	76	B
27	B	77	B
28	A	78	B
29	B	79	D
30	D	80	C
31	C	81	B
32	A	82	B
33	C	83	C
34	D	84	A
35	A	85	B
36	B	86	C
37	C	87	D
38	C	88	C
39	B	89	A
40	D	90	B
41	C	91	A
42	A	92	B
43	B	93	B
44	D	94	C
45	C	95	A
46	A	96	C
47	C	97	D
48	D	98	A
49	C	99	C
50	B	100	A