Rajasthan Judiciary (Civil Judge) Test Series - Mock Test
Questions
Question 1: Mere possession of title is
Option A: Enough to maintain an action under Section 5 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963
Option B: Not enough to maintain an action under Section 5 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963
Option C: Only (b) is correct
Option D: None of the above
Question 2: Under which one of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act, English mortgage has been defined?
Option A: Section 58(e)
Option B: Section 58(d)
Option C: Section 58(g)
Option D: Section 58(f)
Question 3: Lease under section 105 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, pertains to :
Option A: A lease of immovable property
Option B: A lease of movable property
Option C: Both immovable and movable property
Option D: Does not to any particular property
Question 4: Which one of the following relation does not come within the undue influence relationship?
Option A: Doctor and Patient
Option B: Customer and Shopkeeper
Option C: Lawyer and Client
Option D: Master and Servant
Question 5: A rustic woman in apprehension of assault and maltreatment makes a confession for murder of her mother-in-law at the Village Panchayat. Whether this confession is admissible?
Option A: As extra-judicial confession
Option B: Inadmissible due to involuntariness
Option C: As a supporting evidence to the fact deposed by the other witness
Option D: Partly admissible
Question 6: Facts supporting or rebutting the opinion of the experts are relevant under
Option A: Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act
Option B: Section 46 of the Indian Evidence Act
Option C: Section 50 of the Indian Evidence Act
Option D: Section 51 of the Indian Evidence Act
Question 7: Which Section provides for a special remedy of possession by way of summary procedure for a person disposed of immovable property without consent and otherwise in due course of law.
Option A: Section 6 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
Option B: Section 12 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963
Option C: Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963
Option D: All of the above
Question 8: In case, the donee dies before acceptance of the gift, the said gift under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, is ______.
Option A: Valid
Option B: Heritable
Option C: Void
Option D: Voidable
Question 9: Chapter V of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with
Option A: oral evidence
Option B: documentary evidence
Option C: burden of proof
Option D: witnesses
Question 10: No substituted performance of contract under Section 20 of Specific Relief Act, 1963 shall be undertaken unless ________.
Option A: the party who suffers such breach has given a notice in writing
Option B: not less than thirty days' notice
Option C: the party in breach of contract has refused or failed to perform after the notice
Option D: all of the above
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Question 11: A, a married woman, agreed to live in adultery with B and also agreed to serve him as his house keeper. In return, B agreed to pay A Rs. 500 per month for living in adultery and Rs. 500 per month for housing keeping. The agreement is :
Option A: Valid
Option B: Void
Option C: Void as to the first object but valid with respect to the second object
Option D: Unlawful being opposed to public policy
Question 12: Under which provision of law, can a court direct any person to write any words or figures for comparison of handwriting?
Option A: Section 91 of Cr.P.C.
Option B: Section 54A of the Cr.P.C.
Option C: Section 73 of Indian Evidence Act
Option D: Section 45 of Indian Evidence Act
Question 13: 'A' accused of murder, alleges that by grave and sudden provocation, he was deprived of the power of self-control. 'B' denies this fact
Option A: The burden of proof must be shared by both 'A' and 'B'
Option B: The burden of proof is on 'B'
Option C: The burden of proof is on prosecution
Option D: The burden of proof is on 'A'
Question 14: By which amendment, the word Secular and Socialist were included in the preamble?
Option A: 1st Amendment
Option B: 6th Amendment
Option C: 42nd Amendment
Option D: 44th Amendment
Question 15: Dumb witness may give his evidence by writing or sign in open court such evidence shall be deemed to be :
Option A: Written Evidence
Option B: Oral Evidence
Option C: Not admissible in evidence
Option D: It depends on the discretion of the court to accept it is or not
Question 16: Contingent agreement to do or not to do anything, if an impossible event happens :
Option A: are void if the impossibility of the event is known to the parties at the time when it is made
Option B: are void if the impossibility of the event is not known to the parties to agreement at the time when it is made
Option C: are void, whether the impossibility of the event is known or not to the parties to the agreement at the time when it is made
Option D: are voidable at the option of the parties
Question 17: The right to 'equality before law' contained in Article 14 of the Constitution of India is available to :
Option A: natural persons only
Option B: legal persons only
Option C: citizens of India
Option D: all persons whether natural or legal
Question 18: The Sections in the Code of Civil Procedure
Option A: can be amended by the Parliament
Option B: can be amended by a High Court or the State Legislature
Option C: can be amended by the Court hearing the suit
Option D: can be amended by the parties to the suit
Question 19: Article 39A of the Constitution pertains to :
Option A: Equality before law
Option B: Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
Option C: Equal justice and free legal aid
Option D: Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions
Question 20: Doctrine of unjust enrichment' was laid down by the Supreme Court in which one of the following cases?
Option A: Sarla Mudgal vs. Union of India
Option B: Mafatlal Industries Ltd. vs. Union of India
Option C: S.R. Bommai vs. Union of India
Option D: Unni Krishnan vs. State of AP
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Question 21: Which of the provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 provides that the objection regarding territorial or pecuniary jurisdiction has to be raised at the first available opportunity?
Option A: Section 10
Option B: Section 11
Option C: Section 20
Option D: Section 21
Question 22: Rajya Sabha can withold Money Bill for a period of :
Option A: 14 days
Option B: 3 months
Option C: 6 months
Option D: None of the above
Question 23: Suits for declaration and injunction in respect of public nuisances under Section 91 of CPC can be instituted by
Option A: an individual without the leave of the Court
Option B: an individual with the leave of the Court
Option C: two or more persons without the leave of the Court
Option D: two or more persons with the leave of the Court
Question 24: Doctrine of Pith and Substance relates to :
Option A: Interpretation of statutes to solve the problem of competing legislature in the same field
Option B: Serve the objectionable portions of the statute that violate Fundamental Rights
Option C: Interpretation of statutes to solve problem arising out of territorial nexus
Option D: Interpretation of statutes to solve problems of waiver of Fundamental Rights
Question 25: "Where a plaintiff omits to sue in respect of, or intentionally relinquishes any portion of his claim, he shall not afterwards sue in respect of the portion so omitted or relinquished". The genesis of this principle lies in :
Option A: Section 115 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Option B: Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
Option C: Order II Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
Option D: Order I Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
Question 26: On rejection of plaint under provisions of Order VII Rule 11 of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, presenting of a fresh plaint in respect of the same cause of action, is :
Option A: Barred by principles of Res judicata.
Option B: On its own force, does not preclude the plaintiff from presenting a fresh plaint.
Option C: Barred under Order XXIII.
Option D: None of the above
Question 27: Limitation Act, 1963 bars
Option A: Right
Option B: Duty
Option C: Liability
Option D: Remedy
Question 28: Choose the correct option : As per Section 3 of the Limitation Act, in a suit instituted after the prescribed period of limitation, the plea of limitation may be :
Option A: Waived by the defendant
Option B: Cannot be ignored and such suit shall be dismissed
Option C: Waived by both the parties to the suit with consent
Option D: Can be ignored by the Court
Question 29: 'Time requisite' under Section 12(2) of Limitation Act means
Option A: Minimum time
Option B: Maximum time
Option C: Actual time taken
Option D: Absolutely necessary time
Question 30: In which section of Limitation Act, effect of death before accrual of right to sue is provided?
Option A: Section 16
Option B: Section 18
Option C: Section 19
Option D: Section 20
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Question 31: Which one of the following section of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 is related to juveniles jurisdiction?
Option A: Section 25
Option B: Section 26
Option C: Section 27
Option D: Section 28
Question 32: The direction to ensure that police officers do not arrest accused unnecessarily and magistrates do not authorise detentions casually were issued by the Supreme Court in the following case :
Option A: Arnesh Kumar vs. State of Bihar
Option B: Lalita Kumari vs. State of UP
Option C: Sumita Kumari vs. State of Bihar
Option D: Anju Chaudhary vs. State of UP
Question 33: What is the extent of period of security which a Court can order under Section 106 of Cr.P.C.?
Option A: Not exceeding three years
Option B: Not exceeding six months
Option C: Not exceeding two years
Option D: Not exceeding one year
Question 34: Statement recorded by police officer during investigation under Section 161 of the Cr.P.C. can be used during trial -
Option A: for contradicting the witness
Option B: for corroborating the witness
Option C: both for (a) and (b)
Option D: neither for (a) nor (b)
Question 35: Which Section of the Cr.P.C., 1973 applies when the officer-in-charge of a police station receives information that a person has committed suicide?
Option A: Section 174
Option B: Section 181
Option C: Section 154
Option D: Section 147
Question 36: The effect of error in stating the required particulars in the charge, shall be regarded material under which of the following circumstances?
Option A: When co-accused dies.
Option B: When the accused is misled by the error.
Option C: When a material witness becomes hostile.
Option D: When the accused is declared absconded.
Question 37: In a summons case, when the accused appears or is brought before the Magistrate, it shall not be necessary to :
Option A: State the particulars of the offence of which he is accused
Option B: Ask whether he pleads guilty
Option C: Ask whether he has any defence to make
Option D: Frame a formal charge
Question 38: Under Section 313 of Cr.P.C., the statement of the accused -
Option A: Will be recorded on oath.
Option B: Will be recorded without oath.
Option C: Either on oath or without oath as per the discretion of the Court.
Option D: Court can exempt from oath.
Question 39: Dishonestly' has been defined as doing anything with intention to cause wrongful gain to one person and wrongful loss to another, under -
Option A: Section 21 of IPC
Option B: Section 23 of IPC
Option C: Section 24 of IPC
Option D: Section 25 of IPC
Question 40: In case of an offence punishable with fine only, imprisonment for non payment of fine ________.
Option A: has to be rigorous
Option B: has to be simple
Option C: can be rigorous or simple
Option D: can be partly rigorous and partly simple
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Question 41: A', is in a house which is one fire, with 'Z', a child. People below hold out a blanket. 'A' drops the child from the house-top, knowing it to be likely that the fall may kill the child but not intending to kill the child, and intending, in good faith, for the child's benefit, and the child dies : Which of the following offence has been committed by 'A'?
Option A: Section 304A of IPC
Option B: Section 304 Part II of IPC
Option C: Section 302 of IPC
Option D: A has committed no offence
Question 42: A' agree with 'B' that he will help 'B' in copying in his examination. This is an act of -
Option A: Criminal conspiracy
Option B: Abetment
Option C: Common intention
Option D: Common object
Question 43: Promoting enmity between different groups on grounds of religion is punished under which section of the IPC?
Option A: Section 151
Option B: Section 153
Option C: Section 153A
Option D: Section 153B
Question 44: Which provision of the Indian Penal Code makes water pollution punishable?
Option A: Section 277
Option B: Section 278
Option C: Section 279
Option D: Section 280
Question 45: A prostitute, suffering from communicable disease, has sexual intercourse with a man representing that she was free from any disease commits :
Option A: Unnatural offence
Option B: Hurt
Option C: Cheating
Option D: Mischief
Question 46: Voyeurism has been criminalized in India by virtue of which amendment to IPC?
Option A: 2015
Option B: 1983
Option C: 1870
Option D: 2013
Question 47: The law relating to criminal misappropriation of property is given under Section
Option A: 403 IPC
Option B: 404 IPC
Option C: 407 IPC
Option D: 411 IPC
Question 48: A' voluntarily throws into river a ring belonging to 'Z', with the intention of thereby causing wrongful loss to 'Z'. This is an offence of
Option A: theft
Option B: mischief
Option C: extortion
Option D: cheating
Question 49: Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act deals with
Option A: Punishment for dishonour of cheque
Option B: Right of holder
Option C: Rights of holder in due course
Option D: None of the above
Question 50: If the person committing an offence under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, is a company, the following shall be deemed to be guilty of the offence :
Option A: A person who, at the time offence was committed, was in charge of, and was responsible for the conduct of the business of the company and not the company
Option B: The company, in its name
Option C: A Director of the Company nominated by the Central Government
Option D: A person, in charge of and responsible for the conduct of the business of the company, as well as the company
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Question 51: Where in an enactment, there are two provisions which cannot be reconciled with each other; they should be so interpreted that, if possible, effect may be given to both. This is what known as the _______.
Option A: Rule of harmonious construction
Option B: Rule of reasonable construction
Option C: Rule of ejusdem generis
Option D: None of the above
Question 52: Rule of ejusdem generis is applicable when ________?
Option A: Specific word follow general words
Option B: General words follow specific words
Option C: Either (a) or (b)
Option D: Both (a) and (b)
Question 53: ______ contain in them an object of the Act.
Option A: Long title
Option B: Short title
Option C: Preamble
Option D: None of the above
Question 54: "Presiding Officer" under Section 2(l) of Sexual Harassment Act means the presiding officer of the Internal Complaints Committee nominated under ______.
Option A: Section 3(2)
Option B: Section 4(2)
Option C: Section 6(2)
Option D: Any of the above
Question 55: "Tribunal" has been defined under _______ of the Rajasthan Rent Control Act.
Option A: Section 2(b)
Option B: Section 2(d)
Option C: Section 2(f)
Option D: Section 2(j)
Question 56: Under the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, in the absence of any agreement to the contrary, the rent of the premises let out after the commencement of the Act shall be liable to be increased at the rate of _____ per annum.
Option A: 3%
Option B: 5%
Option C: 6%
Option D: 9%
Question 57: Revision of rent is provided under _______ of the Rajasthan Rent Control Act.
Option A: Chapter 2
Option B: Chapter 3
Option C: Chapter 5
Option D: Chapter 7
Question 58: Under the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, landlord is entitled to possession if he is or was an "employee of Central or State Government" or local bodies or State owned corporations and filed the aforesaid petition within a period of _______.
Option A: 6 months
Option B: 1 year
Option C: 2 years
Option D: 3 years
Question 59: The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012 is to protect
Option A: The girl child below 12 years of age
Option B: All children below 18 years of age
Option C: All persons against sexual assault
Option D: Any victim
Question 60: The provisions of Section 3 to 13 (both inclusive) of POCSO Act shall not apply in case of _______ when it is undertaken with the consent of his parents or guardian.
Option A: Oral Examination
Option B: Cross Examination
Option C: Medical Examination
Option D: All of the above
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Question 61: The Special Court under POCSO Act shall complete the trial, as far as possible, within a period of _______ from the date of taking cognizance of the offence.
Option A: 3 months
Option B: 6 months
Option C: 1 year
Option D: 18 months
Question 62: In which of the following leading cases, Hon'ble Supreme Court held that benefit of Section 3 or Section 4 of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 is subject to the limitations laid down in these provisions and the words 'may direct' in Section 4 does not mean 'must direct'?
Option A: State of Gujarat vs. V.A. Chauhan
Option B: Phul Singh vs. State of Haryana
Option C: Ram Prakash vs. State of Himachal Pradesh
Option D: Smt. Devki vs. State of Haryana
Question 63: Protection of action taken in good faith is dealt under ________ of Probation of Offenders Act.
Option A: Section 15
Option B: Section 16
Option C: Section 17
Option D: Section 18
Question 64: The offence under Section 31(1) of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 shall be
Option A: Cognizable and non-bailable
Option B: Cognizable and bailable
Option C: Non-cognizable and bailable
Option D: Non-cognizable and non-bailable
Question 65: In which section of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 there are provisions regarding appeal?
Option A: Section 28
Option B: Section 29
Option C: Section 30
Option D: Section 31
Question 66: Which section defines a child in conflict with law under Juvenile Justice Act, 2015?
Option A: Section 14
Option B: Section 16
Option C: Section 12
Option D: Section 13
Question 67: "Abandoned Child" under the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015 means a child :
Option A: Deserted by his adoptive parents
Option B: Deserted by his biological parents
Option C: Either of the above
Option D: Deserted by his guardians
Question 68: Any person aggrieved by the order made by the competent authority under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2000 can appeal to
Option A: The Sessions Court
Option B: The High Court
Option C: Home Minister
Option D: Chief Judicial Magistrate
Question 69: The upper age limit upto which a child having committed offence is considered to be a juvenile is :
Option A: 16 years
Option B: 18 years
Option C: 15 years
Option D: None of the above
Question 70: "Indecent representation of women" is defined under _______ of Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986.
Option A: Section 2(c)
Option B: Section 2(d)
Option C: Section 4
Option D: Not defined
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Question 71: 'उच्चारण' शब्द का सन्धि- विच्छेद है -
Option A: उचा + चरण
Option B: उच् + चारण
Option C: उच्च + चारण
Option D: उत् + चारण
Question 72: 'द्रौपदी का चीर होना' मुहावरे का अर्थ है -
Option A: बढा-चढा कर कहना
Option B: अत्यधिक विस्तृत होना
Option C: दृढ संकल्प लेना
Option D: तुच्छ होना
Question 73: 'सेना' का पर्यायवाची है -
Option A: कटक
Option B: घटक
Option C: तारक
Option D: दक्षक
Question 74: निम्नलिखित में से 'तद्धव' शब्द है -
Option A: समुद्र
Option B: शांति
Option C: ताप
Option D: काज
Question 75: अधोगति में उपसर्ग है -
Option A: अध
Option B: अधो
Option C: अध:
Option D: गति
Question 76: 'आवाहन' का विलोम शब्द है -
Option A: अवरोह
Option B: अनुवर
Option C: विसर्जन
Option D: अनाहार
Question 77: 'बुराइयों' से सदैव दूर रहिए। इस वाक्य में बुराइयों शब्द में संक्षा है -
Option A: समूहवाचक संज्ञा
Option B: भाववाचक संज्ञा
Option C: व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा
Option D: जातिवाचक संज्ञा
Question 78: निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्द सदैव एकवचन प्रयुक्त होता है ?
Option A: जनता
Option B: ऑख
Option C: ऑंसू
Option D: बाल
Question 79: निम्नलिखित विकल्पों में से अकर्मक क्रिया है -
Option A: पढना
Option B: हँसना
Option C: लिखना
Option D: खाना
Question 80: 'अनुभवी' का विशेष्य है ?
Option A: अनु
Option B: अनुभव
Option C: अनुभाव
Option D: अनुभ
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Question 81: वर्तनी के अनुसार शुद्ध रूप का चयन कीजिए
Option A: ईर्ष्या
Option B: ईर्षा
Option C: इर्षा
Option D: ईरषा
Question 82: शुद्ध वाक्य का चयन कीजिए -
Option A: मैं अनेक विद्वानों से मिला हूँ।
Option B: मैं कई विद्वान जनों से मिला हूँ।
Option C: मैं बहुत सारे विद्वानों से मिला हूँ।
Option D: मैं अनेकों विद्वानों से मिला हूँ।
Question 83: 'और' से पहले किस चिह्र का प्रयोग नहीं होता ?
Option A: पूर्ण विराम
Option B: अल्प विराम
Option C: प्रश्नवाचक
Option D: ये सभी
Question 84: 'यथाविधि' का सही उत्तर बताइए -
Option A: नियम के अनुसार
Option B: विधि के अनुसार
Option C: नियम के तहत
Option D: नियम अविरूद्ध
Question 85: 'किए हुए उपकार को मानने वाला' वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द है -
Option A: कृतज्ञ
Option B: कृतघ्न
Option C: अभारी
Option D: ऋणी
Question 86: To have an axe to grind
Option A: A private end to serve
Option B: To fail to arouse interest
Option C: To have no result
Option D: To work for both sides
Question 87: Synonym of "Busy" is :
Option A: Active
Option B: Occupied
Option C: Preoccupied
Option D: Diligent
Question 88: Antonym of "Vivacity" is :
Option A: Beauty
Option B: Humour
Option C: Apathy
Option D: Truthfulness
Question 89: He said to her, "What a cold day!"
Option A: He told her that it was a cold day.
Option B: He exclaimed that it was a cold day.
Option C: He exclaimed sorrowfully that it was a cold day.
Option D: He exclaimed that it was a very cold day.
Question 90: Fill in the blanks : _____ Children recited _____ poem in ______ honour of ______ Prime Minister.
Option A: the, a, an, a
Option B: a, the, the, the
Option C: no article, a, an, the
Option D: the, a, the, the
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Question 91: Had he wanted, he ______ have completed the project by now.
Option A: should
Option B: might
Option C: could
Option D: must
Question 92: "The boy's friend came tumbling _____ the boy had fallen." - Fill in the blank with the appropriate conjunction.
Option A: After
Option B: Whereas
Option C: Lest
Option D: If
Question 93: "The first ship departed promptly, ______ the others hung back." - Fill in the blank with the appropriate conjunction.
Option A: Unless
Option B: Whether
Option C: Lest
Option D: Whereas
Question 94: ______ of the helpers is available.
Option A: No
Option B: Any
Option C: Some
Option D: None
Question 95: She ______ (leave) for Jammu yesterday.
Option A: leaves
Option B: is leaving
Option C: has been leaving
Option D: left
Question 96: Where ______ he _____ (go) to play in the evening.
Option A: did, go
Option B: has, gone
Option C: does, go
Option D: does, going
Question 97: Fill in the blank : Please, stop ______ so many mistakes.
Option A: to make
Option B: make
Option C: making
Option D: makes
Question 98: Fill in the blank : He got _____ the bus when he reached Jaipur.
Option A: of
Option B: off
Option C: over
Option D: beneath
Question 99: He sold his house for a song. "for a song" means :
Option A: at a reasonable price
Option B: at a discount
Option C: very cheaply
Option D: at a premium
Question 100: Find the correctly spelt word.
Option A: Indipensable
Option B: Indipenseble
Option C: Indispansible
Option D: Indispensable
Answers
| Question No | Correct Answer | Question No. | Correct Answer |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | a | 51 | a |
| 2 | a | 52 | b |
| 3 | a | 53 | c |
| 4 | b | 54 | b |
| 5 | b | 55 | d |
| 6 | b | 56 | b |
| 7 | c | 57 | b |
| 8 | c | 58 | b |
| 9 | b | 59 | b |
| 10 | d | 60 | c |
| 11 | c | 61 | c |
| 12 | c | 62 | c |
| 13 | d | 63 | b |
| 14 | c | 64 | a |
| 15 | b | 65 | b |
| 16 | c | 66 | d |
| 17 | d | 67 | c |
| 18 | a | 68 | a |
| 19 | c | 69 | b |
| 20 | b | 70 | a |
| 21 | d | 71 | d |
| 22 | a | 72 | b |
| 23 | d | 73 | a |
| 24 | a | 74 | d |
| 25 | c | 75 | c |
| 26 | b | 76 | c |
| 27 | d | 77 | d |
| 28 | b | 78 | a |
| 29 | c | 79 | d |
| 30 | a | 80 | b |
| 31 | c | 81 | a |
| 32 | a | 82 | a |
| 33 | a | 83 | d |
| 34 | a | 84 | b |
| 35 | a | 85 | a |
| 36 | b | 86 | a |
| 37 | d | 87 | b |
| 38 | b | 88 | c |
| 39 | c | 89 | d |
| 40 | b | 90 | d |
| 41 | d | 91 | c |
| 42 | a | 92 | a |
| 43 | c | 93 | d |
| 44 | a | 94 | d |
| 45 | b | 95 | d |
| 46 | d | 96 | c |
| 47 | a | 97 | c |
| 48 | b | 98 | b |
| 49 | a | 99 | c |
| 50 | d | 100 | d |
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