Uttarakhand Civil Judge 2023 Question Paper
Uttarakhand Civil Judge 2023 Question Paper Held on 30th April, 2023
Questions
1. Which of the
following was established by the Government of India Act, 1919?
(a) Council of
States
(b) Lower House
(c) Dyarchy
(d) All of
these
2. The
proceedings under the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizen
Act, 2007 are maintainable at:
(a) Maintenance
Tribunal
(b) JMIC
(c) CJM
(d) Protection
Officer
3. Who was the
first Defence Minister of India?
(a) V.K.
Krishna Menon
(b) Baldev
Singh Chokkar
(c) Swarna
Singh
(d) Jagjivan
Ram
4. By which
Amendment of the Constitution, the Fundamental Duties were added?
(a) 42nd
(b) 86th
(c) 52nd
(d) 26th
5. Supreme
Court of India is a court of record under:
(a) Article 127
(b) Article 217
(c) Article 130
(d) Article 129
6. Which of the
following Article of the United Nations Charter relates to Domestic
Jurisdiction?
(a) Article 2(7)
(b) Article 23
(c) Article 3
(d) Article 4
7. Author of
'De jure belli ac pacis' is
(a) Hobbes
(b) Bentham
(c) Grotious
(d) Austin
8. First Indian
Judge of International Court of Justice was:
(a) Dr. Shashi
Tharoor
(b) Sir B.N.
Rau
(c) Sri
Nagendra Singh
(d) Dr. B.R.
Ambedkar
9. At present
who is the Secretary General of United Nations?
(a) Ms Amina J.
Mohammad
(b) Antonio
Guterres
(c) Ban Ki-Moon
(d) Kofi Annan
10. Parliamentary
Committee means a committee which is:
(a) appointed
by the House
(b) nominated
by the Speaker
(c) elected by
the House
(d) All of
these
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11. Which
Article of the Constitution of India provides for 'power to extend functions of
Public Service Commissions'?
(a) Article 321
(b) Article 322
(c) Article 323
(d) Article 324
12. Who is the
present Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
(a) V.K.
Shunglu
(b) Vinod Rai
(c) Girish
Chandra Murmu
(d) Rajiv
Mehrishi
13. Which of
the following is not known as a form of public interest litigation?
(a) Social
Action Litigation
(b)
Disadvantaged Group Litigation
(c) Social
Interest Litigation
(d) None of
these
14. India's
first Artificial Intelligence based Digital Lok Adalat was launched in July
2022 in which State?
(a) Kerala
(b) Telangana
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Uttarakhand
15. SUPACE portal
was launched in the year of 2021-22 with the object to:
(a) Assist in
courts efficiency.
(b) Collect data
of orphanaged children.
(c) Regulate air
pollution and air quality information.
(d) Strengthen
school through community and private sector.
16. ‘EK PAHAL'
campaign is associated with
(a) Ministry of
Education
(b) Ministry of
Culture
(c) Ministry of
Law & Justice
(d) Ministry of
Woman & Child Development
17. According to
the Indian Forest Status Report-2022, the forest cover in India consist of:
(a) 11.66%
(b) 21.71%
(c) 27.57%
(d) 33.45%
18. The Parliament
of which country has passed a law to make "work from home" as a legal
right?
(a) France
(b) Germany
(c) Netherland
(d) Belgium
19. Which of the
following is related to the Judgement of the Supreme Court in Col. Nitisha V.
Union of India (2021)?
(a) Wednesbury
principle
(b) Theory of
Direct Discrimination
(c) Theory of
Proportionality
(d) Theory of
Indirect Discrimination
20. Now in the
United Nation, Turkey will be known as:
(a) Ankara
(b) Istanbul
(c) Turkiye
(d) Constantinople
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21. Which of the
following case is related to 'benchmark disability'?
(a) Vikash Kumar
Vs UPSC, 2021
(b) R.K. Pandey Vs
Union of India, 2017
(c) S. Vanitha Vs
Deputy Commissioner, 2021
(d) Prabha Tyagi
Vs Kamlesh Devi, 2022
22. Which of the
following convention is related to amendment and modification of treaties?
(a) Vienna
Convention
(b) Durban Convention
(c)
Desertification Convention
(d) Johannesburg
Convention
23. 'Lima
Conference' on climate change was held on:
(a) 10th December,
2014
(b) 11th December,
2014
(c) 13th December,
2014
(d) 14th December,
2014
24. International
Criminal Court consists of
(a) 15 Judges
(b) 09 Judges
(c) 17 Judges
(d) 18 Judges
25. 'Bathukamma'
is a State festival of :
(a) Karnataka
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Telangana
(d) Tamil Nadu
26. Which of the
following has been declared as India's first 24 x 7 Solar powered village?
(a) Modhera
(Gujarat)
(b) Veli (Kerala)
(c) Beri (Haryana)
(d) Mirchi
(Rajasthan)
27. Who was the
first Chairperson of the National Commission for women?
(a) Rekha Sharma
(b) Jayanti
Patnaik
(c) Suman Manjari
(d) Kiran Bedi
28. In which of
the following cases, it was held that 'A practice may be religious practice but
merely due to that reason does not form essential and integral part of that
religion'?
(a) Budasma Vs
Fatima Bi
(b) Ismail Faruqui
Vs Union of India
(c) Sarla Mudgal
Vs Union of India
(d) Badruddin Vs
Aisa Begum
29. Which of the
following is not a specialized agency of the United Nations?
(a) International
Labour Organization
(b) United Nations
Human Rights Commission
(c) Food and
Agricultured Organization
(d) International
Bank for Reconstruction and Development
30. Which one of
the following country is not a permanent member of the United Nations Security Council?
(a) Germany
(b) France
(c) United States
of America
(d) Russia
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31. The Tenth
Schedule of the Constitution of India provides for :
(a) Allocation of
seats in the Council of States
(b) Panchayati Raj
(c) Languages
(d)
Disqualification on ground of defection
32. Which of the
following is not a part of the 'Directive Principles of the State Policy' ?
(a) Equal justice
and free legal aid
(b) Separation of
judiciary from executive
(c) Extent of
executive power of the Union
(d) Organization
of Village Panchayats
33. The definition
of the Money Bill is given in which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution?
(a) Article 110
(b) Article 117
(c) Article 107
(d) Article 109
34. Article 21-A
of the Indian Constitution was inserted by which of the following constitutional amendments?
(a) 76th
Constitutional Amendment
(b) 87th
Constitutional Amendment
(c) 86th
Constitutional Amendment
(d) 92nd
Constitutional Amendment
35. Which of the
following is not correctly matched?
(a) Indian
Independence Act
- 1947
(b) The Indian
Council -
1909
(c) The Communal
Award -
1930
(d) First meeting
of Constituent Assembly – 1946
36. Any woman now
may terminate her pregnancy upto :
(a) 8 weeks
(b) 12 weeks
(c) 24 weeks
(d) 28 weeks
37. Who was the
second Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission of India?
(a) Justice A.S.
Anand
(b) Justice M.N.
Venkatachalliah
(d) Justice S.
Rajendra Babu
(c) Justice
Shivaraj V. Patil
38. Which Article
of the Constitution of India provides for the 'Special address by the
Governor'?
(a) Article 175
(b) Article 205
(c) Article 176
(d) Article 178
39. SAARTHI Mobile
App. is related to:
(a) Competition
Commission of India
(b) Stock Exchange
Board of India
(c) Company Law
Appellate Tribunal
(d) National Human
Rights Commission
40. Which of the
following has got a 'geographical indication' tag in Uttarakhand State ?
(a) Elephant
Chilli
(b) Judima Wine
Rice
(c) Mahobas Pan
(d) Thulma Blanket
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41. Who has
authored the book 'Public Service Ethics' in 2021 ?
(a) Shashi Tharoor
(b) Vimal Jain
(c) Prabhat Kumar
(d) Ruskin Bond
42. When E-FIR
Service was launched in the State of Uttarakhand ?
(a) June 2021
(b) July 2021
(c) June 2022
(d) July 2022
43. Ketanji Brown
Jackson became the first black women judge of which country?
(a) U.S. Supreme
Court
(b) Australian Supreme
Court
(c) South African
Supreme Court
(d) Fiji Supreme
Court
44. FASTER (Fast
and Secured Transmission of Electronic Records) was launched by :
(a) Justice S.
Abdul Nazeer
(b) Justice U.U.
Lalit
(c) Justice Y.V.
Chandrachud
(d) Justice N.V.
Ramanna
45. Manila
Declaration, 2012 is related to:
(a) Economic
Issues
(b) Human Rights
(c) Marine Coast
Protection
(d) Air Pollution
Control
46. The
Nehru-Liaquat Pact between India and Pakistan was signed in 1950 to resolve the
issue of:
(a) The Protection
of Minorities
(b) The border
disputes
(c) The then East
Pakistan
(d) The Accession
of Princely States
47. At present the
Economic and Social Council of the United Nations consists of how many members?
(a) 72
(b) 51
(c) 63
(d) 54
48. Who is the
current President of International Court of Justice?
(a) Abdul Qawi Yusuf
(b) Joan E.
Donoghue
(c) Butras Ghali
(d) Nagendra Singh
49. Which Article
of the United Nations Charter relates to the composition of Security Council?
(a) Article 24
(b) Article 25
(c) Article 26
(d) Article 23
50. Who was the
Constitutional advisor of the Constituent Assembly of India?
(a) B.N. Rau
(b) K.M. Munshi
(c) D.P. Khaitan
(d) A.K Ayyar
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51. "Fasid
marriage can be Sahih if certain essential formalities must be performed."
(a) The statement
is correct.
(b) The statement
is false.
(c) These are
Batil marriages.
(d) These are Muta
marriages.
52. Which of the
following is not related to Mehr?
(a) Specified Mehr
(b) Prompt Mehr
(c) Deferred Mehr
(d) Proposed Mehr
53. Which of the
following is not essential element for a valid gift by a Muslim woman?
(a) Only by a
married woman
(b) By married or
unmarried woman
(c) Woman must be
of sound mind
(d) Woman must
attain the age of majority
54. Under the
Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939, how many grounds for a Muslim wife is provided for dissolution of marriage?
(a) VIII
(b) IX
(c) X
(d) VI
55. Muslim Law
applies to:
(a) All persons
who are Muslims by conversion only
(b) All persons
who are Muslims by birth only
(c) All persons
who are Muslims either by birth or by conversion
(d) None of these
56. Talaq Ahsan
can be pronounced only during :
(a) Period of
menstruation
(b) Tuhr period
(c) In the
presence of wife
(d) In the
presence of witnesses
57. What is the
share of single daughter when there is no son under Hanafi Law?
(a) Half
(b) One Sixth
(c) One Fourth
(d) Double
58. Who cannot be
the natural guardian of a valid child under Muslim Law?
(a) Father
(b) Executor
appointed by the father
(c) Father's
father
(d) Mother
59. Under the
Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019 the punishment for pronouncing Talaq is
(a) 3 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 7 years
(d) 4 years
60. Evidence law
is
(a) Lex Telenius
(b) Lex Fori
(c) Lex Loci
(d) Lex Situs
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61. Which of the
following term has not been defined under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ?
(a) Proved
(b) Disproved
(c) Not proved
(d) Void
62. 'Plea of
alibi' is covered under which Section of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ?
(a) Section 11
(b) Section 12
(c) Section 13
(d) Section 14
63. The Panchsheel
Golden Principles of Circumstantial evidence have been laid down in which of the following cases?
(a) Padala Veera
Reddy Vs State of Andhra Pradesh
(b) Chattar Singh
Vs State of Haryana
(c) Sharad Virdhi
Chand Sarada Vs State of Maharashtra
(d) State of
Punjab Vs Gurmeet Singh
64. Which one of
the following cases does not related to dying declaration?
(a) Pakala Narain
Swami Vs Emperor
(b) Sharad
Virdichand Sarda Vs State of Maharashtra
(c) Krishnayya Vs
Venkata Kumar
(d) Vijay Paul Vs
State of Delhi
65. Examination of
witnesses through video conferencing has been approved by the Supreme Court in which of the following cases?
(a) Rohtas Vs
State of Haryana
(b) Chandrappa Vs
State of Karnataka
(c) State of
Maharashtra Vs Dr. Prafulla B. Desai
(d) Ramswaroop Vs
State of Rajasthan
66. Which of the
following is not defined under Section 4 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ?
(a) Conclusive
proof
(b) Shall presume
(c) May presume
(d) Circumstantial
evidence
67. 'Nemo
moriturus praesumitur mentire' a legal maxim is related to which of the
following provision of the Indian Evidence
Act, 1872 ?
(a) Dying
Declaration
(b) Burden of
Proof
(c) Circumstantial
Evidence
(d) Documentary
Evidence
68. Which of the
following Section of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is related to relevancy of facts, showing existence of any state of mind?
(a) Section 6
(b) Section 9
(c) Section 11
(d) Section 14
69. Which of the
following Section has not been inserted in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 by the Information Technology Act, 2000?
(a) Section 73A
(b) Section 47A
(c) Section 53A
(d) Section 81A
70. When the Court
has to form an opinion as to the digital signature of any person, the opinion
of the certifying authority, who has issued the digital signature certificate,
shall be of the following nature:
(a) Relevant
(b) Irrelevant
(c) Inadmissible
(d) None of the
above
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71. Confession can
be the result of self talk and communication of confession to another person is
not necessary was held in the case of:
(a) Sahoo Vs State
of Uttar Pradesh
(b) Nishikant Vs
State of Uttar Pradesh
(c) Aghnoo Vs
State of Bihar
(d) Daryao Singh
Vs State of Uttar Pradesh
72. Which case is
not related to confession?
(a) Kottaya Vs
King Emperor (1946))
(b) M.C. Verghese
Vs Poonam (1969)
(c) State of Uttar
Pradesh Vs Deoman Upadhyaya (1960)
(d) State of
Bombay Vs Kathi Kalu (1962)
73. Arrange the
following in ascending order according to Sections of Indian Evidence Act, 1872:
1. Estoppel
3. Primary
Evidence
2. Accomplice
4. Secondary
Evidence
(a) 3,4,1,2
(b) 1,2,3,4
(c) 4,2,3,1
(d) 2, 3, 4, 1
74. Section 73-A
of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is related to:
(a) Proof as to
verification of digital signature
(b) Proof where no
attesting witness found
(c) Admissibility
of electronic records
(d) Proof as to
electronic signature
75. Which of the
following are included under 'Court' defined under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ?
(a) All judges,
magistrates & all persons legally authorised to take evidence.
(b) All judges,
magistrates & arbitrators
(c) Judges,
magistrates only
(d) Judges,
magistrates & advocates
76. Under Indian
Evidence Act, 1872, which chapter deals with of the 'relevancy of fact'?
(a) Chapter-I
(b) Chapter-II
(c) Chapter-III
(d) Chapter-IV
77. Which of the
following provisions of Indian Penal Code, 1860 is based on the principle of
'Volenti non fit injuria'?
(a) Section 81
(b) Section 87
(c) Section 92
(d) Section 94
78. When two or
more persons agree to do or cause to be done an illegal act or to do an legal
act by illegal means, such an act amount to:
(a) Abetment
(b) Criminal
Conspiracy
(c) Criminal Force
(d) Constructive
Liability
79. The disclosure
of identity of the victim of rape is punishable under which Section of Indian
Penal Code, 1860 ?
(a) Section 225-B
(b) Section 227
(c) Section 228
(d) Section 228-A
80. Mohan borrowed
a bicycle from Ram promising to return it in three days but disposed of the same
and appropriated the proceeds for his own use. Mohan is guilty of offence of:
(a) Criminal
Misappropriation
(b) Criminal
Breach of Trust
(c) Extortion
(d) Theft
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81. Under which
provision of Indian Penal Code death sentence may be awarded for the offence of
rape?
(a) Only Section
376A
(b) Only Section
376AB
(c) Only Section 376
DB
(d) All of these
82. Offence of
sexual harassment has been provided in which of the following Section of the
Indian Penal Code?
(a) Section 354
(b) Section 354B
(c) Section 354A
(d) None of the
above
83. Which one of
the following pairs is not correctly matched under the provisions of the Indian
Penal Code?
(a) R Vs. Swindall
and Osborne - Contributory Negligence
(b) R Vs. Dudley
and Stephen - Self Preservation
(c) R Vs. Arnold -
Act of a person of unsound mind
(d) Basudev Vs.
State of Pepsu - Act not intended to be likely to cause death /
84. Which of the
following is correctly matched under the Indian Penal Code ?
(a) Judge: Section
18
(b) Court of
Justice: Section 22
(c) Dishonestly:
Section 24
(d) Document:
Section 28
85. Which Section
of Indian Penal Code the word 'gender' is explained?
(a) Section 7
(b) Section 8
(c) Section 9
(d) Section 10
86. Who had given
the final judgement in the case of Reg Vs Govinda (1876) ILR 1 Bom 342 ?
(a) Justice R.F.
Mactter
(b) Justice
Melvill
(c) Justice John
Roberts
(d) Justice Samuel
Alito
87. 'Ranbir Penal
Code' applicable in the State of Jammu & Kashmir was repealed by the Indian
Penal Code. Which of the following achieved the replacement?
(a) J & K
Reorganization Bill, 2019
(b) J & K
Reorganization Act, 2019
(c) Constitution
(Application to J & K) Order, 2019
(d) Constitution
(103rd Amendment) Act, 2019
88. Section 41 of
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 talks about the special cases with reference to:
(a) Judgement in
Rem
(b) Judgement in
Personam
(c) Jurisdiction
of the Court
(d) Extra
jurisdiction of the Court
89. A married to B
and starts living with a unmarried girl C in a live-in-relationship. What is
the offence committed by A as against B?
(a) Bigamy
(b) Adultery
(c) Marital
offence
(d) No offence
90. A placed a
bomb in the medical store and gave the people inside three minutes to get out before the bomb exploded. B an arthritic patient failed to escape
and was killed. A would be liable:
(a) Under Section
302 of IPC
(b) Under Section
306 of IPC
(c) A had no
intention to kill B, so no offence
(d) Section 304-A
of IPC
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91. Which of the
following is not correctly matched?
Offences Section of IPC
(a) Criminal
Trespass 441
(b) House breaking 445
(c) Mischief 452
(d) Forgery 463
92. Maximum term
of 'Solitary Confinement' provided under Indian Penal Code, 1860 is:
(a) 6 month
(b) 3 month
(c) 1 year
(d) 1 month
93. Under Indian
Penal Code, 1860 "Offences affecting human body" are provided under
which of the following chapter?
(a) Chapter XVII
(b) Chapter XVI
(c) Chapter XVIII
(d) Chapter XIX
94. In which one
of the following cases the Supreme Court recently has held that the High Court
in exercise of its inherent power can direct further investigation or
re-investigation in appropriate cases?
(a) Nallapa Reddy
Sridhar Reddy Vs State of Andhra Pradesh
(b) Devendra Nath
Singh Vs State of Bihar
(c) Shah Faisal Vs
Union of India
(d) Vinod Katara
Vs State of Uttar Pradesh
95. Which Section
of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 provides for 'default bail' ?
(a) Section 167
(b) Section 165
(c) Section 166
(d) None of these
96. Sentence in
cases of conviction of several offences at one trial is provided under which of
the following Sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure?
(a) Section 31
(b) Section 30
(c) Section 32
(d) Section 33
97. Which one of
the following is prescribed as period of limitation, if the offence is
punishable with fine only?
(a) One month
(b) Three month
(c) Six month
(d) One year
98. Which one of
the following is the maximum period for which an undertrial prisoner can be detained
other than for an offence for which punishment of death has been specified ?
(a) Up to one half
of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for such offence.
(b) Up to one
third of the maximum period of imprisonment.
(c) Just equal to
imprisonment specified for such offence.
(d) No specific
laws
99. Which
provision of Criminal Procedure Code provides that 'the High Court may direct
by whom the costs of such reference shall be paid' ?
(a) Section 396(1)
(b) Section 396(2)
(c) Section 397(2)
(d) Section 397(3)
100. Section 25
(1A) of Criminal Procedure Code has been inserted by which amendment?
(a) Act No. 05 of
1978, Section 3
(b) Act No. 45 of
1978, Section 9
(c) Act No. 25 of
2005, Section 4
(d) Act No. 5 of
2009, Section 3
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101. Which Section
of Criminal Procedure Code provides for local jurisdiction of Judicial
Magistrate?
(a) Section 13
(b) Section 14
(c) Section 13(2)
(d) Section 15
102. In which case
the Supreme Court observed that "an accused person is entitled to know
with certainty and accuracy the exact nature of the charge brought against him.
Unless he has knowledge he would be seriously prejudiced in his defence."
(a) Chittaranjan
Das Vs State of West Bengal (1963)
(b) Ranchod Lal Vs
State of MP (1965)
(c) Gulzari Lal Vs
Emperor (1902)
(d) Kadiri
Kunhahammad Vs State of Madras (1960)
103.
"Provided that the time included between the first and last of such dates
shall not exceed one year" is the provisio of which Section of Criminal
Procedure Code ?
(a) Section 212(1)
(b) Section 212(2)
(c) Section 213
(d) Section 214
104. Who prepares
a panel of names for the appointment of public prosecutors in district?
(a) District Magistrate
(b) Session Judge
only
(c) District
Magistrate in consultation with the Session Judge
(d) State
Government
105. Which of the
following matter is related to a leading case State of Bombay Vs Rusy Mistry?
(a) Arrest
(b) Bail
(c) First
Information Report
(d) Charge
106. The investigation
in relation to an offence Under Section 376, 376-A, 376-B, 376-C and 376-D of Indian
Penal Code, 1860 shall be completed within which period from the date on which
the information was recorded by the officer in-charge of the Police Station?
(a) 15 days
(b) 30 days
(c) Two months
(d) Three months
107. A Caveat
remains in force from the date on which it was lodged:
(a) For 60 days
(b) For 90 days
(c) For 120 days
(d) as the Court allows
108. Misjoinder
and non-joinder of the parties have been provided under which of the following order
of the Civil Procedure Code ?
(a) Order 1 Rule 9
(c) Order 1 Rule 8
(b) Order 1 Rule 7
(d) Order 1 Rule
8A
109. Code of Civil
Procedure (Amendment) Act, 1999 (46 of 1999) came into force on:
(a) 1 January,
2002
(b) 1 July, 2002
(c) 1 January,
2003
(d) 1 July, 2003
110. In a case
where the conditions of Rule 1 of Order 1 do not exist, and two or more persons
joined as plaintiff in one suit, the result would be...
(a) Joinder of
plaintiffs
(b) Mis-joinder of
plaintiffs
(c) Joinder of
defendants
(d) Joint promises
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111. Which one of
the following is correctly matched?
Subject Matter Sections of
the Civil Procedure Code
(a) Stay of Suit 9
(b) Res Judicata 11
(c) Institution of Suit 13
(d) Bar to further Suit 15
112. Which one of
the properties can't be attached in execution of a decree under Civil Procedure
Code, 1908 ?
(a) Land
(b) Books of
Account
(c) Cheques
(d) Bank notes
113. Who can file
a suit under Section 91 of Civil Procedure Code, 1908 for public nuisance?
(a) Any citizen
(b) District
Magistrate
(c) Advocate
General
(d) All of these
114. What is meant
by 'mutates mutandis'?
(a) Mutual understanding
(b) As is where is
(c) Mutually
inclusive
(d) Apply with
such changes as may be necessary
115. Which of the
following mode of settlement of dispute outside the Court is not mentioned
under Section 89 of Civil Procedure Code, 1908 ?
(a) Arbitration
(b) Conciliation
(c) Negotiation
(d) Mediation
116. A Latin maxim
"Ut pendent Nihil Innovatur" finds its place in the Civil Procedure
Code, 1908
(a) Res Judicata
(b) Ejusden
Generis
(c) Lis pendens
(d) Res Ipsa
Loquitor
117. In which of
the following case the Privy Council had applied 'doctrine of Election' to a Muslim?
(a) Manek Lal
Mansuck Lal Vs Hormusji Jarnshedji
(b) Prabodh Kumar
Vs Dantamar Tea Co.
(c) Sadique
Hussain Vs Hashim Ali
(d) Wazir Mohammad
Vs Har Prasad
118. An exception
to the "Nemo dat quad non habet" principle has been incorporated
under which provision of Transfer of Property Act, 1882 ?
(a) Section 36
(b) Section 40
(c) Section 41
(d) Section 50
119. Which one
of the following property can be transferred in respect to Section 6 of the
Transfer of Property Act, 1882 ?
(a) A mere
right to sue.
(b) An interest
in property restricted in its enjoyment.
(c) A right to
future maintenance
(d) An easement
along with the dominant heritage.
120. Which one
of the following Section of the Transfer of Property Act defines anomalous mortgage?
(a) Section
58(f)
(b) Section
58(d)
(c) Section
58(g)
(d) Section
58(1)
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121. Which of
the following is the time limit given under Section 17 of the Transfer of
Property Act, 1882 ?
(a) Life of
transferee
(b) A period of
18 years from the date of transfer
(c) Either (a)
or (b) whichever is longer
(d) Neither (a)
nor (b)
122. Which of
the following persons may institute a suit for redemption of the mortgaged
property?
(a) Only a
mortgagor
(b) Only any
surety for payment of the mortgage debt or any part thereof
(c) Only a
creditor of the mortgager who has obtained a decree for sale of the mortgaged
property.
(d) All of
these
123. Choose
correct answer of the following statement:
(1) A lease of
immovable property from year to year can be made only by a registered
instrument.
(2) A lease of
immovable property for a term exceeding one year or reserving a yearly rent may
be made by a registered instrument only.
(3) All other
leases of immovable property may be made also by oral agreement accompanied by delivery
of possession.
(a) Only (1) is
correct
(c) Only (3) is
correct
(b) Only (2) is
correct
(d) Above all
are correct
124. Section 73
of Transfer of Property Act, 1882 which deals with the right to proceeds for
revenue sale or compensation on acquisition is based on :
(a) Doctrine of
Contribution
(b) Doctrine of
Substituted Security
(c) Doctrine of
Election
(d) Doctrine of
Marshalling
125. In ancient
time, seeds of the institution of marriage lie in:
(a) Man's quest
to know the maternity of children
(b) Man's quest
to know the paternity of children
(c) Both (a)
and (b)
(d) None of the
above
126. A male and
a female Hindu can solemnize marriage under :
(a) Under Hindu
Marriage Act, 1955
(b) Under
Special Marriage Act, 1954
(c) Either (a)
or (b)
(d) Only (a)
and not (b)
127. Under
Section 2 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 who among the following is not a
Hindu?
(a) Christian
(b) Parsi
(c) Jew
(d) All of the
above
128. Under
Section 3(f) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 the meaning of Sapinda relationship
is:
(a) two degrees
through the mother and three degree through the father
(b) three
degrees through the mother and four degrees through the father
(c) three
degree through the mother and five degrees through the father
(d) five
degrees through the mother and seven degrees through the father
129. Sapinda
Relationship includes relationship by:
(a) Half or
uterine blood
(b) Adoption
(c) Full blood
(d) All of the
above
130. A marriage
under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 must be solemnized in accordance with the customary
rites & ceremonies of:
(a) the
bridegroom
(b) the bride
(c) both bride
and bridegroom
(d) either
bride or bridegroom
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131. 'Deferred
dower' is payable on the dissolution of marriage if marriage dissolved by:
(a) death
(b) divorce
(c) either
death or divorce
(d) only (b)
and not (a)
132. Under
Muslim Law (Sunni), which one of the following is not a irregular marriage
(fasid) :
(a) A marriage
with a fifth wife
(b) A marriage
without witness
(c) A marriage
with a woman undergoing Iddat
(d) A marriage
with wife of another
133. Under
Muslim Law, a gift during death illness is known as:
(a) Hiba-bil-illness
(b)
Marz-ul-Maut
(c) both (a)
and (b)
(d) None of the
above
134. Under
Muslim Law, Tuhr means:
(a) Period of
menstruation
(b) Period of
iddat
(c) Period
between menstruation
(d) None of the
above
135. Which of
the following is not 'Iddat period' as defined under Section 2(b) of the Muslim
Woman (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986 ?
(a) three
menstrual courses after the date of divorce, if she is subject to menstruation.
(b) three lunar
months after her divorce, if she is not subject to menstruation.
(c) if she is
pregnant at the time of her divorce, the period between the divorce and
delivery of her child or the termination of her pregnancy, whichever is
earlier.
(d) two lunar
months after her divorce.
136. Under
Muslim Law, 'Specified dower' can be fixed:
(a) before the
marriage
(b) at the time
of marriage
(c) at any time
subsequent to the marriage
(d) all of the
above
137. The Shia
Law approves the following form of divorce:
(a)
Talaq-e-Ahsan
(b)
Talaq-e-Hasan
(c) Neither (a)
nor (b)
(d) both (a)
and (b) above
138. According
to Civil Procedure Code, 1908 hearing of the case is concluded but the judgment
could not be pronounced at once and fixed for future date then such date shall
not be fixed ordinarily
(a) beyond 60
days from the date of conclusion of hearing.
(b) beyond 30
days from the date of conclusion of hearing.
(c) beyond 90
days from the date of conclusion of hearing.
(d) any date
could be fixed by the Court
139. Section 18
of the Indian Evidence Act is related to:
(a) Existence
of course of business when relevant
(b) Definition
of term 'admission'
(c) Evidentiary
value of admission
(d) Admission
by party to proceedings or his agent
140. Under
Section 121 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 privilege is available to
(a) Accomplice
(b) Judges and
Magistrate
(c) Advocates
(d) Husband and
Wife
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141. An
illiterate labourer makes a mark daily on the wall of his house to count his
daily wages. These marks may be proved as:
(a) Documentary
Evidence
(b) Hearsay
Evidence
(c) Oral
Evidence
(d)
Circumstantial Evidence
142. The word
'State of mind' under Section 14 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 includes:
(a) Intention
(b) Preparation
(c) Attempt
(d) Motive
143. Section 74
of the Evidence Act, 1872, deals with
(a)
Testamentary Documents
(b)
Non-testamentary Document
(c) Personal
Documents
(d) None of the
above
144. Section
114-A was first introduced in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 after wide spread
protest against which judgement?
(a) Tukaram Vs
State of Maharashtra
(b) Maganbhai
Vs State of Bihar
(c) Bachan
Singh Vs State of Uttar Pradesh
(d) Badri
Prasad Vs State of Bihar
145. Rule
Against double jeopardy is contained under which Section of Criminal Procedure
Code, 1973 ?
(a) Section 300
(b) Section 302
(c) Section 304
(d) Section 308
146. Who
decides upon the release of the accused on the ground of a closure report on
account of deficient evidence?
(a)
Officer-in-charge of the police station
(b) Jail
Superintendent
(c) High Court
(d) Magistrate
147. Any
private person may arrest any person who in his presence commits following
offence:
(a) Cognizable
offence
(b)
Non-bailable offence
(c) Cognizable
and Non-bailable offence
(d) Non-cognizable
and Non-bailable offence
148. Match the
following:
Subject Matter Section of
Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
(A) Arrest by Magistrate Section 46
(B) Arrest how its made Section
44
(C) Search of arrested person Section
52
(D) Power to seize offensive weapons Section 51
(a) A-3, B-2,
C-1, D-4
(b) A-1, B-2,
C-4, D-3
(c) A-2, B-1,
C-4, D-3
(d) A-1, B-2,
C-3, D-4
149. In which
case the Supreme Court held that in context to the provision Under Section 91
of Criminal Procedure Code "the term 'person' does not include an accused
person on trial".
(a) Om Prakash
Sharma Vs CBI, 2000
(b) T. Subbiah
Vs Ramaswamy, 1970
(c) Shyamlal Vs
State of Gujarat, 1965
(d) Jagdish
Prasad Sharma Vs State of Bihar, 1988
150. Bailable
offences are shown in the following schedule of Code of Criminal Procedure,
1973 ?
(a) First
Schedule
(b) Second
Schedule
(c) Third
Schedule
(d) Fourth
Schedule
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151. Under
Section 340 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 the Court can:
I. Move Suo
Motu
II. Not move
Suo Motu
III. Move on
the application made by a Stranger
IV. Move on the
application made by one of the parties
(a) I and III
(b) I and IV
(c) II, III and
IV
(d) I, III and
IV
152. Under
Indian Penal Code, 1860 who may commute death punishment for any other
punishment?
(a) Law
Minister
(b) President
of India
(c) Governor of
States
(d) Appropriate
Government
153. How many
sections and chapters are contained in the Indian Penal Code, 1860 ?
(a) Section 511
and 24 Chapters
(b) Section 511
and 23 Chapters
(c) Section 510
and 23 Chapters
(d) Section 512
and 23 Chapters
154. Match the
following:
Subject Matter Section Under IPC
A. Fabricating False Evidence Section 191
B. Giving False Evidence Section
192
C. Bribery Section
171-E
D. Punishment for bribery Section
171-B
(a) A-4, B-2,
C-1, D-3
(b) A-2, B-1,
C-4, D-3
(c) A-1, B-3,
C-4, D-2
(d) A-3, B-2,
C-4, D-1
155. In which
case Supreme Court held that common intention may develop on the spot also?
(a) Subramani
Vs State of Tamil Nadu
(b) Rishi Deo
Pandey Vs State of Uttar Pradesh
(c) Major Singh
Vs State of Punjab
(d) State of
Haryana Vs Tej Ram
156. Which
Section of Indian Penal Code, 1860 prescribes punishment for belonging to gang
of dacoits?
(a) Section 401
(b) Section 402
(c) Section 400
(d) Section 399
157. X, a
blacksmith, is seized by a gang of dacoits and forced by threat of instant
death to take his tools and is forced to open the door of Y's house. The
dacoits then loot the house of Y and also killed his son Z. X is guilty of:
(a) No offence
(b) Dacoity
with Murder
(c) Abatement
of dacoity with murder
(d) Preparation
to commit dacoity only
158. The case
of Laxmi Vs Union of India (2014) relates to:
(a) Rape
(b) Murder
(c) Dowry Death
(d) Acid Attack
159. Grave and
sudden provocation is
(a) a
presumption under law
(b) a question
of law
(c) a question
of fact
(d) a mixed
question of law and fact
160. Original
documents to be produced at or before the settlement of issues under which of
the following in the Code of Civil Procedure?
(a) Order 13
Rule 1
(b) Order 4
Rule 13
(c) Order 6
Rule 10
(d) Order 9
Rule 22
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161. Principle
of Res judicata applies to:
(a) Suits only
(b) Arbitration
proceedings only
(c) Execution
proceedings only
(d) Suits as
well as execution proceeding
162. Which of
the following is not true about a legal representative?
(a) A person
who in law represents the estate of a deceased person.
(b) Any person
who intermeddles with the estate of a deceased.
(c) The person
on whom the estate devolves on the death of the party so suing or sued.
(d) The term is
limited to executors only and not covered the administrators.
163. The
provision relating to inter-pleader suit is contained under Civil Procedure
Code, 1908 in:
(a) Order XXII
(b) Order XXXV
(c) Order XXXIV
(d) Order XXXVI
164. After the
case is heard, the Civil Court is required to pronounce the judgement:
(a) On the same
day
(b) Any day
within 60 days if exceptional circumstances are there.
(c) Any day
within 30 days
(d) All of the
above
165. A right to
use public street of 10 feet width was affected because of encroachment. A
files a suit:
(a)
Representative Suit Order 1 Rule 8 necessary
(b)
Representative Suit Order 1 Rule 8 is not necessary
(c) Writ
Jurisdiction
(d) None of
these
166. Which of
the following is correct meaning of Latin term 'Res'?
(a) Matter or
thing
(b) Issues
(c) Claim
(d) Remedy
167. Which one
of the following is a 'transfer of property' under the Transfer of Property
Act, 1882 ?
(a) Charge
(b) Surrender
(c) Transfer of
Debt/Mortgage
(d) Partition
168. 'A'
transfer property to 'B' in trust for 'C' and directs 'B' to give possession of
the property to 'C' when he attains the age of 25 years. 'C's interest in the
property is :
(a) Contingent
(b) Vested
(c) Public
Interest
(d) Neither
Contingent nor Vested
169. Muhammad
Afzal Vs. Ghulam Kasim (1903) is a leading case on :
(a) Rule
against perpetuity
(b) Doctrine of
holding ones
(c) Doctrine of
election
(d) Equity of
redemption
170. Under
which Section of Transfer of Property Act, 1882, provision relating to
conditional transfer has been provided?
(a) Section 34
(b) Section 29
(c) Section 27
(d) Section 25
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171. Which is
period of effect of holding over in the absence of agreement under the Transfer
of Property Act, 1882 ?
(a) Two years
(b) One year
(c) Depend on
the parties
(d) Three years
172. Who have
the power to make the rules for purpose of Chapter IV of the Transfer of
Property Act, 1882 ?
(a) State
Government with the Consultation of High Court.
(b) Union
Government
(c) Supreme
Court of India
(d) High Court
for carrying out in itself and courts of civil judicature subject to its
superintendence.
173. A
mortgages a certain plot of building land to B and afterwards erects a house on
the plot. For the purposes of his security, decide the entitlement of B on the
house as well as the plot.
(a) B is not
entitled to the house as well as plot.
(b) B have no
security.
(c) B is
entitled to the house as well as the plot.
(d) B have no
knowledge about the house.
174. In which
case each party warrants the genuineness of the money under Transfer of
Property Act, 1882 ?
(a) Lease
(b) Transfer of
property
(c) Transfer by
one co-owner
(d) Exchange of
money
175. Which
chapter of Transfer & Property Act, 1882 contains provision relating to
actionable claims?
(a) Chapter VI
(b) Chapter V
(c) Chapter VII
(d) Chapter
VIII
176. A transfer
500 to his niece C, if she will desert her husband. Such transfer is:
(a) Voidable
(b) Void
(c) Legal
(d) Irregular
177. Which
Section of Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is based on the doctrine of
acceleration?
(a) Section 27
(b) Section 28
(c) Section 29
(d) Section 30
178. Rule
against perpetuity applies to:
(a) Transfer
for public interest
(b) Moveable
property only
(c) Immoveable
property only
(d) Moveable
& Immoveable property
179. Which
Section of Transfer of Property Act, 1882 talks about 'Onerous Gift'?
(a) Section 124
(b) Section 125
(c) Section 126
(d) Section 127
180. Which one
of the following not correctly matched under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956
(a) Agnate -
Section 3(1) (a)
(b) Cognate - Section
3(1)(b)
(c) Full Blood
- Section 3(1) (e)
(d) Intestate -
Section 3(1)(g)
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181. In the
absence of Class-I heirs of schedule, who shall be preferred firstly to inherit
the property of Hindu Male under Hindu Succession Act, 1956?
(a) Brother
(b) Sister
(c) Father
(d) All of the
above
182. SARDA Act
was enacted to prevent which of the following?
(a) Child
Marriage
(b) Sati
(c) Dowry
(c) Bigamy
183. Hindu
Marriage Act, 1955 does not apply to:
(a) Buddhist
(b) Hindu
(d) Jain
(d) Scheduled
Tribes
184. Provision
regarding admissibility of documentary evidence is given under which Section of
Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 ?
(a) Section 21
(b) Section
21-A
(c) Section
21-B
(d) Section
21-C
185. How many
'Rules' are contained for the distribution of property among heirs in Class-I
of the schedule under Hindu Succession Act, 1956 ?
(a) 2 Rules
(b) 4 Rules
(d) 8 Rules
(c) 6 Rules
186.
"Marumakkattayam Law" is recognized under the
(a) Hindu Succession
Act, 1956
(b) Hindu
Marriage Act, 1955
(c) Hindu
Minority & Guardianship Act, 1956
(d) Hindu
Adoption & Maintenance Act, 1956
187.
"Where marriage is registered and there is no proof of performance of
ceremonies, the registration alone would not make the marriage valid."
Which one of the following cases does not related to it?
(a) Madhavi Vs.
Ramesh
(b) Shaji Vs.
Gopinath
(c) S.C. Shanti
Vs. V.P. Venkatesh
(d) Jyotika Vs.
Rajesh
188. Doctrine
of 'Relation back' applied to the matters relating to :
(a) Legitimacy
(b) Adoption
(c) Maintenance
(d) Marriage
189. Saroj Rani
Vs Sudershan Kumar case is related with :
(a) Ceremonies
for Marriages
(b) Judicial
Separation
(c) Divorce
(d) Restitution
of Conjugal Rights
190. In which
of the following cases the Supreme Court has discussed the Constitutional
validity of Triple Talaq?
(a) Shayara
Bano Vs Union of India
(b) Naz
Foundation Vs Union of India
(c) Daniel
Latifi Vs Union of India
(d) Shabnam
Hashmi Vs Union of India
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191. Which of
the following Sections of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 defines 'degree of
prohibited relationship' ?
(a) Section 3(d)
(b) Section
3(f)
(c) Section 3(g)
(d) Section
3(c)
192. Mother and
Step Mother are included in which category of heirs under the schedule of Hindu
Succession Act, 1956 ?
(a) Mother in
Class I heir and Step Mother in Class II heir.
(b) Both in
Class I heirs.
(c) Both in
Class II heirs.
(d) Mother in
Class II heir and Step Mother in Class I heirs.
193. Which of
the following provisions provides for in camera proceeding under the Hindu
Marriage Act, 1955 ?
(a) Section 19
(b) Section 20
(c) Section 21
(d) Section 22
194. Which
Section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides for the 'Alternate relief in divorce proceeding?
(a) Section 11
(b) Section 13
(c) Section
13-A
(d) Section
13-B
195. The Muslim
Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937 came into effect on:
(a) 7th
October, 1937
(b) 7th
October, 1938
(c) 5th
September, 1937
(d) 4th
September, 1937
196. Choose the
right option of the following statement:
(a) Justice
(b) Equity
(c) Good
Conscience
(d) All of the
above
197. One of the
leading care on pre-emption is:
(a) Govind
Dayal Vs. Inayatullah
(c) Amjad Khan
Vs Ashraf Khan
(b) Abdul Hafiz
Vs Sahib Bai
(d) Nawazish
Ali Khan Vs Ali Raza Khan
198. Which of
the following is not the basic ingredients of valid Hiba?
(a) The
Declaration (Ijab)
(b) The
Acceptance (Qabul)
(c) The taking
of possession (Qabza)
(d) Acceptance
must be in writing for immovable property
199. The Muslim
Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019 has retrospective effect
from:
(a) 19th
September, 1973
(b) 19th
September, 1986
(c) 19th
September, 2014
(d) 19th
September, 2018
200. Which one
of the following does not fall under three demands of pre-emption of Muslim
Law?
(a)
Talab-e-Muwasawat
(b)
Talab-e-Gawahe Ishq
(c)
Talab-e-Ishhad
(d) Talab-e-Tamleek
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